And back to business.
Philosotroll: ... that entire thing is a non-sequitur that ignores the substance of the preceding comments entirely. Not exactly sure what's worth responding to at this point. Let's do this again.
"so are u saying space isn't real either but an abstract idea?"
No. I'm saying that it is real but not concrete. Are you saying that you don't believe the number "4" is real?
"Because u can use the term concrete in a different way...one of the ways is real"
You can use a lot of different words in a lot of different ways; some of those ways are wrong. Saying that "concrete" and "real" are synonymous is false in common use and false for their use in philosophy.
Chad AK Elliott: Haha u can run around in a circle all day but its not the fallacy o reification...I make the claim in my argument that ste is irrational illogical and has no evidence... the opositve [sic] of that is that ste had a finite beginning... in other words time and space had a finite beginning that was caused the uncaused cause or first cause which is the uc option...my argument never makes the claim that time ittself causes anythingthing to exist.
Philosotroll: I think some of your verbs need direct objects, Chad.
Given that time does not sufficiently cause *anything*, as we have already shown, if the statement I posted above is true, it would be deductively true to say that time is not sufficiently caused and, thus, [some semantically sensible version of] STE is true, modus tollens. The proof is in the pudding.
P1. All things which are sufficiently caused sufficiently cause subsequent things.
P2. Time does not sufficiently cause anything.
C. Time is not sufficiently caused. (formally)
And now for the [very] minimal formalization.
P1. ∀x ((a ⊃ x) ⊃ (x ⊃ z))
P2. ∃t ~(t ⊃ z)
∴ ∃t ~(a ⊃ t) (MT)
"The reason is time is mearly a measurement events... time itself is a biproduct of the creation of the universe which has space"
Again, you're the one claiming that time was sufficiently caused. I'm perfectly fine with leaving it as an indexer;but then time would be non-contingent, and that renders your argument incoherent.
"I think you hang up here is that you are thinking of time being created...but time rather came into existence as bi product of the universe...so in a weird way time was sufficiently caused by not really...it was a bi product of the universe being caused...u get it?"
You seem to think this helps your argument at all. It doesn't. You're claiming that there were extant states of affairs *prior to* the existence of time. Either those states of affairs are logically impossible, because time is an indexer, or time is sufficiently caused. The former has been my position throughout the argument. You took the latter position by claiming that time is sufficiently caused; if you want to switch to the former position, that's fine, but you then have to drop the entire Elliott argument, because [as we've demonstrated] it entails the view that time was sufficiently caused.
Philosotroll: "Those quotes were in error...I didn't know we were being so technical.."
My language has been technically rigorous the entire way through. You want to pose a philosophical argument, then that rigor is to be expected.
".the universe is what is sufficiently caused and when the universe begins to exist then time stats as a product of that cause... so where are we now???"
"as a product of that cause" is a sufficient causal relationship. So you're sitting here claiming that its not sufficiently caused, but the relationship that you're experience is sufficient causation.
And... scene.